moviesetc4ever moviesetc4ever
  • 06-01-2018
  • Mathematics
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Is it true that since sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)=1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain

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icedipping
icedipping icedipping
  • 06-01-2018
No. 

An easy counterexample is sin(30°) + cos(30°) which is more than 1.
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Аноним Аноним
  • 06-01-2018
No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.
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